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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Change: This section of the exam measures the skills of DevOps Engineers and focuses on how to manage and control changes within IT environments. It includes planning, executing, monitoring, and communicating changes to ensure minimal disruption while keeping stakeholders informed about the progress and impact of changes.
Topic 2	AI and Automation: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Operations Managers and addresses the use of AI and automation in delivering IT systems and applications that align with user needs. It ensures that software releases meet quality standards, are delivered on time, and stay within budget, using modern tools and intelligent technologies.
Topic 3	Service Design: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Release Managers and covers the principles and practices involved in designing services and products that are practical, useful, and aligned with stakeholder expectations. It focuses on ensuring that services are designed in a way that they can be effectively delivered and supported by the organization and its partners.

Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q20-Q25):

NEW QUESTION # 20
What is a description of a release?

A. The repeated building and testing of code leading to deployment
B. All updated service versions that are mandatory for users
C. A set of new service features that will benefit users
D. The guidelines for collating two or more changes

Answer: C

Explanation:
In ITIL 4, a release is defined as the output of the release management practice that is made available to users.
TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"A release is a version of a service or a set of service components that is made available for use. It often includes new or changed features that deliver value to users"(Section 2.2).
* Option A (A set of new service features that will benefit users) aligns with the definition, as a release typically includes new or changed features intended to provide value to users.
* Option B (The repeated building and testing of code) describes a development process (e.g., continuous integration), not the release itself.
* Option C (All updated service versions that are mandatory for users) is incorrect because releases are not always mandatory; ITIL 4 allows for push or pull approaches.
* Option D (Guidelines for collating changes) describes a process or policy, not the release itself.
The correct description of a release is a set of features or components made available for use, making A the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 21
A service provider is reviewing its release management practice. It has been found that most releases meet their objectives and are delivered on time. However, teams and organizations using the service provider's services are complaining that sometimes software updates interrupt their work during peak business hours.
What should the service provider do to improve the release management practice by applying the 'collaborate and promote visibility' guiding principle?

A. Do not overcomplicate the practice
B. Ensure an excellent user experience
C. Optimize the practice for the value streams
D. Review the effectiveness of release models

Answer: B

Explanation:
The 'collaborate and promote visibility' guiding principle in ITIL 4 emphasizes working with stakeholders to ensure transparency and alignment with their needs. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management document advises:"Applying the 'collaborate and promote visibility' principle involves working closely with stakeholders, such as service consumers, to understand their needs and ensure releases do not disrupt their operations, thereby ensuring an excellent user experience"(Section 5.1).
* The issue is that updates interrupt work during peak hours, indicating a lack of collaboration with users to understand their schedules and needs.
* Option A (Ensure an excellent user experience) directly addresses this by implying collaboration with users to schedule releases at non-disruptive times, aligning with the principle.
* Option B (Review the effectiveness of release models) is an internal activity and doesn't directly involve collaboration with stakeholders.
* Option C (Optimize the practice for the value streams) focuses on value stream efficiency but doesn't specifically address user collaboration.
* Option D (Do not overcomplicate the practice) is unrelated to the collaboration principle.
The correct answer is A, as ensuring an excellent user experience through collaboration directly applies the principle to address the issue.

NEW QUESTION # 22
Which activity of the 'release model development and improvement' process is used to standardize the preparation of release instances?

A. Release model review and development
B. Release execution
C. Release management approach review and development
D. Product architecture and service relationship analysis

Answer: A

Explanation:
The release model development and improvement process aims to create and refine standardizedmodels for releases. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument explains:"Release model review and development involves defining and standardizing the structure, contents, and schedule of releases to ensure consistency in the preparation of release instances"(Section 3.2.2).
* Option A (Release management approach review and development) focuses on the overall practice approach, not specifically the preparation of release instances.
* Option B (Release model review and development) directly addresses standardizing the preparation of release instances by defining repeatable models.
* Option C (Product architecture and service relationship analysis) is a supporting activity to understand dependencies, not to standardize release preparation.
* Option D (Release execution) is the process of deploying a release, not developing or standardizing models.
The correct answer is B, as it directly relates to standardizing release preparation through model development.

NEW QUESTION # 23
A release manager is considering the involvement of third parties in the release management practice. Which release management activity is likely to have a dependency on third parties?

A. Release management alignment with other practices
B. Verifying a release according to the release plan
C. Identifying an applicable model for a release instance
D. Performing a release according to an agreed model

Answer: D

Explanation:
Third parties, such as suppliers or vendors, often play a role in the execution of releases, especially when they provide components or services involved in the release. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management document states:"Performing a release according to an agreed model often involves dependencies on third parties, such as suppliers providing software updates, infrastructure, or support services, which need to be integrated during the release execution"(Section 3.4).
* Option A (Release management alignment with other practices) is an internal coordination activity, less likely to directly involve third parties.
* Option B (Identifying an applicable model) is a planning activity typically handled internally by the release manager.
* Option C (Performing a release according to an agreed model) directly involves executing the release, which often requires third-party components or services, creating a dependency.
* Option D (Verifying a release) may involve third-party tools but is less dependent on their active participation compared to execution.
The correct answer is C, as performing the release is the activity most likely to depend on third parties.

NEW QUESTION # 24
A retail organization is hiring a new release manager. The vacancy description indicates that successful candidates should have good knowledge of technologies and platforms used by the organization, good knowledge of ITIL and DevOps, and experience in retail. What other skill is important to the release management role?

A. Understanding of the organization's business
B. Technical expertise
C. Knowledge of service management frameworks
D. Project planning and coordination

Answer: D

Explanation:
The release management role in ITIL 4 requires a range of competencies to ensure effective coordination and execution of releases. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"A release manager must have strong project planning and coordination skills to manage the scheduling, communication, and execution of releases, ensuring alignment with organizational goals and minimal disruption"(Section 3.3).
* Option A (Knowledge of service management frameworks) is already covered by the requirement of ITIL knowledge in the vacancy description, so it's not an additional skill.
* Option B (Project planning and coordination) is a critical skill for release managers, as they need to orchestrate complex release activities, manage timelines, and coordinate with stakeholders, which isn't explicitly covered by the listed requirements.
* Option C (Technical expertise) is implied by the requirement for knowledge of technologies and platforms, so it's not an additional skill.
* Option D (Understanding of the organization's business) is important but less specific to release management compared to project planning, and the retail experience requirement already covers business context.
The correct answer is B, as project planning and coordination is a key additional skill for effective release management.

NEW QUESTION # 25
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Free PDF Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Reliable Test Camp With Interarctive Test Engine & Reliable Reliable ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Braindumps Questions

Reliable ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Braindumps Questions - Updated ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Demo

Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:

Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q20-Q25):

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